TIME: 3 Hrs. MARKS: 150
Note: - Attempt all the questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
This paper carries negative marking 25% marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.

Choose the correct answer:

1. The advantage of moving coil permanent magnet type instrument is-
 a) Law power consumption b) No hysteresis loss
c) Efficiency eddy current damping d) All of these
2. The internal resistance of an ammeter is-

a) Zero b) Very low
c) Very high d) Infinite
3. The moving iron type voltmeter and ammeter are suitable to measure the potential difference and current in-
a) A.C. circuit only b) D.C. circuit only
c) Both a.c. and d.c. circuits d) None of these
4. Ammeter falls under the category of-
a) Indicating instruments b) Recording instrument

c) Integrating instruments d) Standard instrument
5. In moving iron type instrument because of hysteresis in the iron parts of the moving   system, the readings are-
a) Higher on descending value but lower on ascending values
b) Higher on ascending values but lower on descending values
c) Higher on both ascending as well as descending values
d) Lower on both ascending as well as descending values
6. Ohm meter is-
a) A meter to record ohm b) Used to measure resistance
c) Combination of ohm and meter d) An indicating instrument
 7. In a moving iron type ammeter the coil has-
a) Large number of turns of thick wire b) Large number of turns of thin wire

c) Few turns of thin wire d) Few turns of thick wire
8. Volt meter resistivity is defined
 a) Reciprocal of full scale. deflection current
b) Volt per ohm
 c) Ohms per volt
d) It is degree of sensitiveness to impulse change

9. Which of the following instrument is undesirable for measurement of AC value?
a) Moving iron repulsion type b) Moving iron attraction type
c) Dynamometer type d) Permanent magnet moving coil type

10. Maximum current measured by the clip on ammeter is -
a) 700 Amp b) 500 Amp
c) 800 Amp d) 1000 Amp
11. For the measurement of voltage and current in the ratio frequency range, suitable instrument is-
a) Moving iron type b) Moving coil type
c) Electro thermic type d) Electrostatic type
12. The wattmeter which cannot be used on D.C. circuit is-
a) Thermal wattmeter b) Electrostatic wattmeter
c) Induction wattmeter d) Electro — dynamic wattmeter
13. In a megger when not in operation, the needle shows a resistance of-
a) Zero ohm b) 100 ohm
c) 555 ohm d) Infinity
14. The resistance of the shunt for an ammeter is usually of the order of-
a) 1000 ohm and above b) 100 ohm and above
c) Less than 100 ohm d) Less then 1 ohm

15. Instrument current transformer is used to operate -
a) Volt meter b) Watt meter
c) Ohm meter d) Ammeter
16. Vibrating reeds are employed in-
a) Frequency meter b) Power factor meter
c) Synchroscope d) Megger
 17. Vibrating reed frequency meter operates on the principle of-
a) Phenomena of electrical resonance
b) Phenomena of mechanical resonance
c) Variation of impedance of an inductive coil circuit with the variation in supply frequency
  d) None of these
18. A Weston frequency meter is a-
a) Dynamometer type instrument b) Moving coil instrument
c) Moving iron instrument d) Induction instrument
19. Which wiring system is inside of wall?
a) P.V.C. wiring b) Batten wiring
  c) Concealed wiring d) Pipe wiring
20. In house wiring all lighting switch are of capacity rating of -
a) 6 amp. b) 16 amp.
c) 32 amp. d) None of these

21. Green coloured cable indicates -
a) Phase line b) Neutral line
c) OK line d) Earthing connection
22. According to I.S.I. the maximum power load in a sub — circuit should not be more than-
a) 1000 W or two points b) 2000 W or two points
c) 3000 W or four points d) 500 W or one point
23. What is the maximum number of lighting points that can be connected in a circuit?
a) 10 b) 05 c) 08 d) 12
 24. Light point is fixed from the ground level to height of-
 a) 2.75 mtr. b) 2.5 mtr.
c) 2.13 mtr. d) 1.8 mtr.

25. Which type of wiring is done in workshop?
a) Conduit pipe wiring b) Cleat wiring
c) Batten wiring d) L.C.C. wiring
26. Earth connection can be available from-

a) Pole/Ground b) Meter
c) Fuse d) Switch Board
27. Red colour wire is used as -
a) Earth wire b) Phase wire
c) Neutral wire d) Insulated wire
28. Cleat wiring is used for-
a) Temporary lighting at dry places b) Permanent lighting at dry places
c) Both used (a) and (b) d) None of these
29. Refrigerator, Air conditioner, Microwave oven, washing machine :need socket/plug with the minimum capacity of
a) 16 amp. b) 2.5 amp.
c) 6 amp. d) 10 amp.
30. Which material is used for wiring continuous busbar?

a) Aluminum b) Copper
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
31. For what voltage level are the screwed conduit circuit used-
a) Less than 250 volt b) For voltage between 250 volt- 600 volt
c) For voltage above 600 volt d) None of these
18/A/C/S-2/4/E -4-
32. Which among these is a method of wiring?
a) Joint box b) Tee system

c) Loop in system d) All of these
33. An electric bulb can work from-

 a) D.C. supply only b) A.C. supply only
 c) Battery Supply only d) Al of these

34. Lux is a unit of illumination-
a) It is equal to foot candle b) It is less than foot candle
c) It is more than foot candle d) It has no relation with foot candle
35. Light-
a) Is a form of electricity energy b) Is a form of heat energy
c) Consist of electromagnetic waves d) Consist of shooting particles
36. Colour of light depends upon-
a) Wave length b) Frequency of the wave
c) Speed of the light d) (a) and (b) above
37. One foot candle is equal to-

a) 1/10 lux b) 10 lux c) 100 lux   d) 1000 lux

38. In a sodium vapour lamp, the discharge is first started in the-
a) Neon gas b) Nitrogen gas
c) Argon gas d) Krypton gas
39. Which lamp cannot sustain much voltage fluctuation?
a) Incandescent lamp b) Fluorescent lamp
c) Mercury vapour lamp d) Sodium vapour lamp

40. Filament lamp at starting will take current-
a) Equal to its full running current b) Less than its full running current
c) More than its full running current d) None of these

 41. Illumination of one lumen per sq. meter is called-
 a) Ft. candle b) Candela
  c) Lux d) Lumen, meter
42. The following discharge lamp needs separate choke:
a) Fluorescent lamp b) Sodium vapour lamp
c) Mercury vapour lamp d) All of these lamps
43. Fluorescent tube is coated from inside with white powder. This is done to-
a) Change the colour of light emitted to white
b) Improve che appearance

c) Increase the light radiations due to secondry emission
  d) Improve its life

44. Which part is the "brain" of the computer?

a) Monitor b) CPU

c) RAM d) ROM
45. The permanent memory built into your computer is called -
a) RAM b) CPU
c) ROM d) CD - ROM
46. Which of the following is not an input device?
a) Monitor b) Keyboard

c) Joystick d) Microphone
47. Which of the following is not an output device?
a) Monitor b) Printer
  c) Speaker d) Keyboard
48. Which device allows your computer to talk to other computer over a telephone line as well as access the internet?

a) RAM b) CD-ROM drive
c) Modem d) Hard drive
49. Which of the following is an operating system you would be using on the computer?
a) Internet Explorer b) Netscape
 c) Microsoft word d) Microsoft windows
50. Which of these is not a computer manufacturer?
  a) IBM b) Applé
c) Microsoft d) Sun

 SEMESTER -11  rrnmE: 3 HRS. MARKS: 150
Note: Attempt all the questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
This paper carries negative marking. 25 % marks will be deducted for each  wrong answer.

Choose the correct answers: -
1. Unlike TIG welding, MIG welding  (a) Requires no flux
 (b) Requires no post-weld cleansing
 (c) Uses consumable electrodes
(d) Provides complete protection from atmospheric contamination
2. In Gas Metal Arc welding, the electrode extended from the end of the contact tip to the arc is known as -
  (a) Electrode length (c) Electrode retention
(b) Electrode extension (d) Electrode projection


3. Argon and helium are the two commonly used inert gases. Which one is preferred for
h.'flG welding of copper?
(a) Helium (c) No preference
(b) Argon (d) Mixture of helium and argon
4. All commercially available electrodes contain deoxidizing metals. Which of the following is deoxidizing metal?
 (a) Silicon (c) Titanium
(b) Manganese (d) All of these

5. MIG welding process is becoming increasingly popular in welding industry because of

(a) Its easy operaüon
(b) Its high metal deposition rate
(c) Its low initial cost
(d) Both its easy operation and its high metal deposition rate
  6. Projection welding can be regarded as a mass production form of welding.
(a) Upset (c) Seam
(b) Spot (d) Butt

7. Which of the following is NOT true about globular metal transfer mode in Gas Metal Arc welding?
(a) It uses inexpensive C02 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) It can weld at high speed (d) It gives less spatter
8. Metals like columbium can be easily welded by welding process.
(a) TIG (c) Flash
(b) MIG (d) Electron beam
9. Which of the following welding processes is used for welding of sheet metals in  automobile and aircraft industries?
(a) Shielded metal arc welding (c) Thermit welding
(b) Gas tungsten arc welding (d) Resistance welding
10. Which of the following is an example of fusion welding?
(a) Arc welding (c) Resistance welding
(b) Forge welding (d) Thermit welding with pressure
11. What is the form of flux used in submerged arc welding?
(a) Paste (c) Granulated
(b) Powder (d) Coil
12. The type of filler metal normally used in submerged arc welding is -
(a) Cored wire (c) Lightly coated wire
(b) Bare wire (d) Heavily coated wire
13. Which two items in MIG welding would need to be changed if the size of mild steel wire  electrode is changed from 0.9 mm to 1.2 mm?
(a) Contact tip and shroud (c) Gas diffuser and drive rollers (b) Contact tip and drive rollers (d) Gas bottle and earth clamp
14. MAG process differs from NflG in that it uses  instead of inert gases.

(a) Hydrogen (c) C02
 (b) Nitrogen     (d) All of these

15. Electroslag welding is -
(a) An arc welding process (c) A non-arc welding process
 (b) A gas welding process (d) A resistance welding process

16. Electroslag welding is done in -
(a) Flat position (c) Vertical position
(b) Overhead position (d) Any position
17. In atomic hydrogen welding a single phase AC arc is maintained between two  electrodes.
(a) Carbon steel (c) Tungsten
(b) Copper (d) Aluminium
18. Which statement applies to thermit welding?
(a) It needs no external source of current
(b) It is suitable for joining parts having heavy cross — section

(c) The slag formed in this process is A1203
(d) All of these
 19. Steel is an alloy of -
(a) Chromium and iron (c) Iron and carbon
(b) Sulphur and phosphorous
20. Post — heating of weld is applied - (d) Manganese and riickel
 (a) Immediately after welding (c) During welding
(b) Before welding   (d) None of these
  21. What does the tem 'pass' refer to as regards welded joint?
 (a) Depression in base metal (c) Shape of weld bead
(b) Each layer of weld bead deposited (d) Distance from electrode to metal

22. Metal particles expelled during welding are called -
(a) Porosity (c) Spatter
(b) Overlap (d) Undercut
23. The process of heating to a certain temperature and then quenching in order to make the
metal tough is the heat treatment process called -
(a) Hardening (c) Tempering
(b) Annealing (d) Normalizing lii

24. For submerged arc welding, what is the effect of raising arc voltage but keeping all other parameters the same?
(a) Weld bead width will increase(c) Weld bead width will decrease

(b) Depth of penetration will increase (d) Depth of penetration will decrease
25. What steps can be taken to prevent welding hazards in workshop?
(a) Idenüfy risks (c) Establish control methods (b) Evaluate hazards (d) All of these
26. Thermit welding uses what to work?
(a) Oxygen and acetylene combined to form a flame
(b) Resistance of two metals held under pressure
 (c) Enveloping tungsten using hydrogen gas
  (d) An exothermic reaction between aluminium powder and metal oxide
27. Rotation of one of the workpieces to be joined is required in -
(a) Thermit welding (c) Friction welding
 (b) Electroslag welding (d) TIG welding
28. Nickel based hardfacing alloys -
(a) Increase wear resistance (c) Increase hardenability
(b) Are highly resistant to corrosion (d) Cannot be deposited on carbon and heat steels
29. Metal with highest resistivity and lowest conductivity is -
 (a) Copper (c) Nickel
(b) Iron (d) Titanium
30. The purpose of backing material at the root of a weld is -
(a) To support molten weld metal (c) To prevent lack of fusion
(b) A heat sink (d) All of these
31. In welding, the area of base metal melted as determined on a cross-section of the weld is the -

(a) Heat — affected zone (c) Dead zone
(b) Fusion zone (d) Twilight zone
Contd.. ..5/

32. In TIG welding the electrode manipulated by the welder is -
(a) Made of tungsten (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Not consumed (d) None of these
33. When visually inspecting the root bead of a single V butt weld it should be checked for(a) Lack of root penetration (c) Tungsten inclusion
(b) HAZ hardness (d) Slag
34. A burn — through in a welded joint may occur if
(a) Current is too low (c) Root gap is too large
(b) Root face is too large (d) Arc voltage is too high
35. If a welding inspector detects a type of imperfection not allowed by the application standard, he should -
(a) Ask for explanation
(b) Reject the wéld

(c) Prepare a concession request
(d) Reject the weld only if he considers it to be harmful
36. If the unit of power is expressed in watt, which of the following is a correct relationship?
(a) Power (watt) = Ampere x Volt (c) Power (watt) = Volt x Ohm
(b) Power (watt) = Ampere x Ohm (d) Power (watt) = Ampere x Volt x Ohm
37. If 100 mm thick plates are to be welded, which of the following processes should be selected so as to get high production rate with square edge preparation?
(a) Electroslag welding (c) TIG welding
(b) C02 welding (d) Friction welding
38. In which of the following non-destructive methods, there is no need for supply of electricity?
 (a) X — ray test (c) Dye penetrant test
(b) Ultrasonic test (d) Hydraulic pressure test
18/NC/S-2/2/E -6-
39. The limitation of electron beam welding is    (a) High equipment cost
(b) The size of work chamber is a constraint
(c) Rapid solidification rate can cause cracking in some materials  (d) All of these
40. Protective equipment not suitable for eye protection from welding radiation includes -
(a) Welding helmet with filter plates (c) Safety goggles with filter plates
(b) Clear safety goggles (d) Protective screens
41. Which of the following is not considered a type of metal transfer for GMAW?
 (a) Short circuiting (c) Globular
(b) Spray (d) Droplet
42. The main types of welding joints are -
 (a) Flat, square, angled, upright and vertical
(b) Horizontal, single-V, double-V, T-joint and overhead

  (c) Butt, lap, corner, T-joint and edge joint
 (d) Butt, single bevel, double bevel, plasma and edge joint
43. The main positions for welding pipes are -
  (a) IG, 2G, 3G, 4G (c) IF, 2F, 5G, 6G  (d) IG, 2G, 5G, 6G
44.The height of the weld face above the base metal in a groove weld is called as (a) Crown (c) Buildup (b) Weld reinforcement (d) Face
45. A triangular — shaped weld symbol represents what type of weld?
(a) Fillet weld (c) Flare groove
(b) Bevel groove (d) V — groove
46. Which of the following should be removed in order to obtain a good dye penetrant test?
 (a) Varnish (c) Plating
(b) Oxides (d) All of these
47. Which type of test uses a weighted pendulum which strikes a notched test specimen?
(a) Brinnel test (c) Tensile test
(b) Fatigue test (d) Charpy impact test
48. In electron beam welding to eliminate the defect porosity, which has to be adjusted?
(a) Spot size (c) Weld penetration
(b) Deflection (d) Focal position / focus current
49. Which one of the following tests makes use of sound waves?
(a) Radiographic test (c) Dye penetrant test
(b) Ultrasonic test (d) Magnetic particle test
50. The process of hammering the weld metal immediately after it is deposited is called    (a) Tinning (c) Pressing
(b) Peening (d) Dressing

18/NC/SO/4/E PAPER-I   WIREMAN (THEORY) SENIESTER-II   TIME: 3 Hrs. MARKS: 150 Note: - Attempt all the questions. All questions ...