July17 MECHANIC (DIESEL) THEORY SEMESTER-II

July17 MECHANIC (DIESEL) THEORY SEMESTER-II

In which working cycle is completed in four stroke engine?
a) One revolution of the crankshaft
b) Two revolution of the crankshaft
c) Three revolution of the crankshaft
d) Four revolution of the crankshaft

In which parts are to be joined between cylinder head and engine block?
a) Valve guide
b) Compressor ring
c) Combustion chamber
d) Head gasket

A two stroke cycle engine gives the number of power strokes as compared to the four  stroke cycle engine at the same engine speed.
a) Half
b) Same
c) Double
d) Four times

A two stroke cycle engine gives mechanical efficiency than a four stroke cycle engine-
a) Higher
b) Inwer
c) Same
d) None of these

After fitting rings over piston, it is inserted in cylinder with the help of a special tool called-
a) Ring Expander
b) Ring cleaner
c) Ring compressor
d) Ring groove cleaner

Compression ratio of diesel engine is- -
a) The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression stroke
b) Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder
c) Swept volume/Cylinder volume
d) Cylinder volume/Swept volume
The main function of intake manifold is
a) Reduce intake noise
b) Provide the mixture of air and fuel
c) Distribute intake air equally to the cylinder
d) Cools the intake air to a suitable temperature

The heat transfer from coolant to air in radiator of an automobile engine take place by-
a) Radiation only
b) Convention only
c) Convention & Radiation only
d) Conduction, Convention & Radiation

Water circulation in a radiator take place from
a) Lower tank to upper tank
b) Upper to lower tank
c) Engine to upper tank
d) Engine to water pump

Supercharger is the function of-
a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
b) Providing forced cooling air
c) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products only
d) Injecting excess fuel for raising more load

In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based on-
a) Low heat value
b) High heat value
c) Calorific value
d) Net calorific value

Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it.
a) Is lighter
b) Warless
c) Absorb shocks
d) Does not react fuel & lubricant oil

Which is more viscous lubricant oil?
a) SAE 30
b) SAE 40
c) SAE 50
d) SAE 80

In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located -
a) Above the piston
b) Below the piston
c) Between the piston
d) Anywhere

Piston rings are usually made of-
a) Cat iron
b) Cast steel
c) Aluminium
d) Brass

The forced fed lubrication system means that the oil is delivered to the engine by-
a) Gravity b) The pressure created by the oil pump
c) Splashing action of the crankshaft d) None of these

Exhaust pipes of engines are covered with insulating material in order to
a) Keep the exhaust pipes warm b) Increase engine efficiency
c) Reduce heat transfer to engine room
d) Conserve heat

Fuel consumption with increase in "back pressure" will-
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Depend on the factor
d) Remain unaffected

In which parts of battery charging rotates crank fan belt?
a) Water pump pulley
b) Dynamo
c) Self Starter
d) Magneto

In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be-
a) Short delay period
b) Late auto - ignition
c) Low compression ratio
d) High self-ignition temperature of fuel

The most effective air cleaner in case of diesel engine is-
a) Dry type
b) Wet type
c) Whirl type
d) Oil bath type

Preferred location of an oil cooler is-
a) Before the filters
b) After the filters
c) Between the filters
d) Anywhere

High sulphur content in diesel oil used for diesel engines lead to-
a) Production of highly corrosive gases corroding the cylinder walls and exhaust system
b) Excessive engine wear
c) Damaging of both the storage tank and the engine
d) Reduction in thermal efficiency

The device used to reduce exhaust noise is called
a) Muffler
b) Exhaust pipe
c) Exhaust manifold
d) Tail pipe

The device for smoothing out the power impulses from the engine is called
a) Flywheel
b. Camshaft
c. Crankshaft
d. Clutch

Coolant temperature sensor is a thermostat or give information of temperature to
a) Fuel tank
b) Injection pump
c) E.C.M
d) Injector

Actually engine speed sensor indicates position of the
a) Camshaft
b) Crankshaft
c) Valve
d) Piston

Oxygen sensor is mounted on

a) Exhaust manifold
b) Intake manifold
c) Both a & b
d) None of these

Actuator is a type of sources.. .
a) Electro mechanic
b) Hydraulic
c) Only mechanical
d) Only chemical

In charging system - Alternator, which of the following is used to convert AC to DC in  Alternator-
a) Slip rings
b) Diodes
c) Regulator
d) Starter

Clutch assembly are fitted with
a) Piston
b) Crankshaft
c) Gear box
d) Flywheel

Which method is used for oil supply to  parts after filter?
a) Splash system
b) Full flow lubrication system
c) Splash cum pump method
d) Fly wheel splash method

If thermostat valve is closed, what will happen?
a) Engine do not run
b) Engine become hot gradually
c) Engine become vibrate.
d) Enginc bccomc very hot

Injection pressure in a diesel engine is about-
a) 10 bar
b) 100 bar
c) 150 bar
d) 500 bar

Which type of bearing is used for main bearing and connecting rod bearing?
a) Ball bearing
b) Needle roller bearing
c) Plain bearing
d) Taper roller bearing

Starter Motor, the engine crankshaft must be rotated at a speed of 100 rpm to start the engine. What is possible cause of the pinion disengages slowly after starting?
a) Weak battery
b) Over running clutch defective
c) Open in control circuit
d) Open circuit in commutator

The Firing order in an l.c Engine depend upon -
a) Arrangement of cylinder
b) Design of crankshaft
c) Noe of cylinder
d) All of these

Which component convert up & down motion in to rotary motion of piston is called
a) Camshaft
b) Crankshaft
c) Connecting rod
d) Piston rings

When air transmit to engine by turbo charger, what will happen?
a) Transmit exhaust gases
b) Transmit increased air pressure
c) Make Vacuum
d) Less air pressure

The impeller type exhauster has
a) One spindle
b) Two spindle
c) Three spindle
d) No spindle

The pressure of pump in common rail diesel injection system is
a) 10 to 10000 pound / square inch
b) 200 to 300 pound / squarc inch
c) 400 to 800 pound / square inch
d) 700 to pound / square inch

Which factor contribute to high fuel consumption?
a) Defect in Solenoid switch
b) Discharged battery
c) Clogged air cleaner-
d) Weak pressure relief valve

Lubrication oil consumption is high on a vehicle. Identify the cause
a) Breath filler removed
b) Battery is weak
c) Worn out piston rings
d) Alternator not charging

The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by-
a) Calorific value
b) Octane number
c) Cetane number
d) None of these

The thermal efficiency of diesel engine is about-
a) 15%

Which are following component used for oil pump run?
a. Crankshaft
b. Dammer pulley
c. Piston pin
d. Cam shaft

In engine specification it is given that cubic capacity is  engine's
a) 'Lubricating oil capacity is 1.6 lit.
b) One cylinder total volume is 1.6 lit.
c) All cylinders sweep volume 1.6 lit.
d) Cooling water circulation per minute is 1.6 lit.

Cylinder head accommodates
a) Valves and injectors
b) Crankshaft
c) Cylinders liners
d) Connecting Rods

Tachometer in a vehicle measures-
a) Speed  
b) Distance
c) Engine rpm
d) Fuel consumption



1.6 lit. it means the

The part which must be fitted in the piston to assure a good seal with cylinder wall is
a) Piston pins
b) Piston rings
c) Connecting rod
d) Gaskets


July17 COMPUTER OPERATOR AND PROGRAMMING ASSISTANT THEORY SEMESTER -1

July17 COMPUTER OPERATOR AND PROGRAMMING ASSISTANT
THEORY SEMESTER -1


BIOS is stored in
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Hard disk
d) Pen drive

Which one is not a secondary memory?
a) RAM
b) DVD
c) Hard disk
d) Pen drive

Which memory speed is the fastest?
a) RAM
b) Cache memory
c) Hard disk
d) Pen drive

What are the various types of Alignments of text is possible in MS Word?
a) Left
b) Right
c) Centre
d) All of these

How many primary key is/are possible in a table?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Any number

The use of Pivot table is/ are
a) Filter
b) Sort
c) Group
d) All of these

Logical operator is/are
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) ALL

Which of the following is/ are data type?
a) Text
b) Date/time
c) Number
d) All of these

Clip Art delivers
a) Ready made shapes
b) Ready made images
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these

MS Access is a program.
a) Database
b) Game
c) Presentation
d) None of these
 
Sorting can be done in order.
a) Ascending
b) Descending
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these

HTML stands for
a) Hypertext Markup Language
b) Hypertext madeup Language
c) Hypertext monitoring Language
d) None of these

What are the various styles of font?
a) Bold
b) Italics
c) Underline
d) All of these

is the area that allows controlling access to the data & database.
a) Data Definition Language
b) Data Manipulation Language
c) Data Control Language
d) Data Query Language

LAN means-
a) Live area network
b) Local area network
c) Leave area network
d) None of these

HTTP stands for-
a) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
b) Hightext Transfer Protocol
c) Hypertext transfer Property
d) Hypertext tethering protocol

FTP is
a) Network
b) Internet
c) Device
d) Protocol

In communication, Bandwidth is of
a) Lowest frequency
b) Highest frequency
c) Medium frequency
d) Difference between highest & lowest frequency

Guided medium for data transfer is / are
a) Twisted pair cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Fibre optical cable
d) All of these

Which layer is on the top in ISO/OSI network model?
a) Application layer
b) Network layer
c) Data link layer
d) Session layer

The. software which you install on the PC to access the internet is
a) www
b) TCP/IP
c) HTTP
d) Browser

Firewall is a
a) Computer peripheral
b) Virus
c) Computer software
d) Antivirus

Which is a programming language?
a) HTTP
b) TCP
c) HTML
d) None of these

Which one is the oldest calculated device?
a) Napier's logs & bones
b) The abacus
c) Pascal's adding machine
d) Babbage's analytical engine

I nano second = seconds.
a) 10 3
b) 104
c) 10 9
d) 109

Which one of the following is an output device?
a) Keyboard
b) Mouse
c) Monitor
d) Joystick

Which one is Auxilliary memory?
a) Secondary storage
b) Register
c) Primary memory
d) RAM

Which language program is most difficult to write?
c) High level language

C language is a/an d) All are same
a) Assembly language b) Machine language
a) Assembly language b) Machine language
c) High level language

Which one is not an operating system? d) None of these
a) DOS b) Linux
c) C language d) Windows


Jan18 WIREMAN THEORY SEMESTER -III

 Jan18 WIREMAN THEORY
SEMESTER -III

One that is based on forward biased PN junction is-
a) Photo diode
b) LED
c) Photo voltaic cell
d) Both (a) and (b)

Which of these is a best
description of a zener diode?
a) it operates in the reverse region
b) It is a constant voltage device
c) It is a constant current device
d) None of these

The LED is usually made of material like-
c) GeAs
b) C and Sl
d) None of these

Zener diode are used as-
a) Reference voltage element
b) Reference current element
c) Reference resistance
d) None of these

Zener diode are -
a) Specially doped p n junction
b) Normally doped p -- n junction
c) Lightly doped  junction
d) None of these

ICs are generally made of
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Copper
d) Nonc of these

The active components in an IC are
a) Resistors
b) Capacitors
c) Transistors and diodes
d) None of these

Diode characteristic curve is a plot between-
a) Current and time
b) Voltage and time
c) Voltage and current
d) Both (a) & (b)

in case a PN junction is forward biased-
a) Hole and electrons seize to move
b) Electrons and holes move towards the junction
c) Electrons and holes move away from the junction
d) Depletion region decreases

The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is
a) Collector
b) Base
c) Emitter
d) Collector-base-junction

The value of a of a transistor is
a) More than 1
b) Less than 1
d) None of these

The voltage gain in a transistor comected in   arrangement is the highest.
a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) None of these

A SCR is   switch.
a) One directional
b) Two directional
c) Three directional
d) Four directional

A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a-
a) Unijunction device
b) Device with three junctions
c) Device with four junctions
d) None of these

Which of the following finds applications in speed control of D.C. motor?
a) FET
b) NPN transistor
c) SCR
d) None of these

A UJT has
a) Two pn junction
b) One pn junction
c) Three pn junction
d) None of these

The fuse rating is expressed in terms of-
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) VAR
d) KVA

MCCB are commonly used for operating current between-
a) 63 amps. To 800 amps
b) 5 amps. To 16 amps
c) 16 amps. To 32 amps
d) None ofthese

ELCB is an abbreviation for-
a) Electrolytic circuit breaker
b) Earth locking circuit breaker
c) Earth leakage circuit breaker
d) Electric leakage circuit breaker

Miniature circuit breaker is a small-
a) Fuse
b) Magnetic switch
c) Electromagnetic switch
d) Two way switch

For soldering of platinum, tungsten, steel etc. the solder used is-
a) Cabmium-solder
b) Tin lead solder
c) Tin lead silver solder
d) Copper silver - zinc solder

The following magnet is used in large machines to create magnetic flux-
a) Permanent magnet
b) Electro magnet
c) Temporary magnet
d) Any of these

Function ofis to collect current from the commutator and supply it to the external load.
a) Field magnet
b) Armature
c) Brushes
d) Yoke

Which of the following generators have two field windings?
a) Series wound generator
b) Shunt wound generator
c) Compound wound generator
d) All of these

In a separately excited D.C generator the field is connected to-
a) In series with an armature
b) Across the armature
c) To the external supply source
d) None of these

The armature reaction in D.C machine causes distortion in the main field flux. This effect of armature reaction can be reduced by-
a) Increasing the length of air gap b) Decreasing the length of air gap
c) Increasing the number of poles
d) Decreasing the number of poles

In a dc generator the polarity of interpole is-
a) Always N
b) Always S
c) Same as the polarity of the main pole that follows in the direction of rotation
d) Same as the polarity of the main pole that proceeds in the direction of rotation

The function of the commutator in a D.C machine is-
a) To change ac to dc
b) To change alternating voltage to direct voltage
c) For easy control of voltage
d) None of the above

Winding generator will have„
a) Wave wound
b) Lap wound
c) Delta wound
d) Duplex wound

The efficiency of a DC shunt generator has a maximum value when-
a) Magnetic losses are equal to mechanical losses
b) Armature copper loss is equal to the constant loss
c) Field copper loss is equal to the constant loss.
d) None of the above

For parallel operation the generators normally preferred are-
a) Series generator
b) Shunt generator
c) Compound generator
d) Series and shunt generator

Interpoles in the armature of a D.C generator are used to-
a) Neutralize the reactance voltage
b) Neutralize the reactance voltage and the cross-magletizing effect of the armature reaction
c) Neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of the armature reaction
d) None of the above

Which DC motor has approximately constant speed?
a) Series
b) Shunt
c) Cumulatively compound motor
d) All of these

A series motor-
a) Should always be started on load
b) Always runs at constant speed
c) Is not suitable for high starting torque
d) May 'run away' if the field gets opened

The back emf of a DC motor depend on-
a) Field flux
b) Shape of conductors
c) Type of slip rings
d) Brush material

The electromagnetic torque and speed are in the same direction in case of-
a) DC motors
b) DC generators
c) Both DC motors as well as DC generators
d) None of the above

In DC motor, the conditions for maximum power is-
a) Supply voltage = h x back e.m.f.
b) Supply voltage = 4x back e.m.f.
c) Supply voltage = 2 x supply voltage
d) Supply voltage = h x supply voltage

The speed of a DC motor is-
a) Always constant
b) Directly proportional to back e.m.f.
c) Pirectly proportional to flux
d) Directly proportional to the product of' back eurnf. and flux

The direction of rotation of a compound dc motor can be effectively reversed by interchanging-
a) Shunt field connections
b) Series field connections
c) Armature connection
d) Line leads

Two wattmeter connected to measure the power in a balanced 3 phase load will indicate same reading when load p.f. is -
a) Zero
b) Unity
d) None of these

In a 3 phase, 4 wire star-connected system the voltage across the phases is . ...volts.
a) 400
b) 200
c) 500
d) None of these

In a balance 3-phase load, the current in the neutral will be

The rating of Alternator / Generator may be expressed in

c) KVAR
b) kva

Single phase motor generally used for small air compressor is-
a) Capacitor start and capacitor run motor
b) Reluctance motor
c) Universal motor
d) Shaded pole motor

A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a-
a) AC series motor
b) 2 Phase induction motor
c) 3 Phase induction motor
d) DC series motor

A three phase slip ring induction motor has-
a) Short Circuited rotor
b) Double cage rotor
c) Wound rotor
d) All of these

Switch not used in the house wiring circuit is -
a) Single way switch
b) Push button switch
c) Two way switch
d) Knife switch

The direction of rotation of 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by-
a) Reducing load
b) Reducing frequency
c) Supplying low voltage
d) Interchanging any two phases

Slip ring induction motors are employed only for-
a) Speed control
b) High starting torque
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

For induction motors-
a) Should be essentially a constant speed motor
b) Its speed reduces to some extent with increase in load
c) Does not need to be synchronized
d) All of the above


Jan18 WIREMAN THEORY SENIESTER-II

Jan18 WIREMAN THEORY
SENIESTER-II

The advantage of moving coil permanent magnet type instrument is-
a) Law power consumption
b) No hysteresis loss
c) Efficiency eddy current damping
d) All of these

The internal resistance of an ammeter is-
a) Zero
b) Very low
c) Very high
d) Infinite

The moving iron type voltmeter and ammeter are suitable to measure the potential difference and current in-
a) A.C. circuit only b) D.C. circuit only
c) Both a.c. and d.c. circuits
d) None of these

Ammeter falls under the category of-
a) Indicating instruments
b) Recording instrument
c) Integrating instruments
d) Standard instrument

In moving iron type instrument because of hysteresis in the iron parts of the moving   system, the readings are-
a) Higher on descending value but lower on ascending values
b) Higher on ascending values but lower on descending values
c) Higher on both ascending as well as descending values
d) Lower on both ascending as well as descending values

Ohm meter is-
a) A meter to record ohm
b) Used to measure resistance
c) Combination of ohm and meterd) An indicating instrument

In a moving iron type ammeter the coil has-
a) Large number of turns of thick wire
b) Large number of turns of thin wire
c) Few turns of thin wire
d) Few turns of thick wire

Volt meter resistivity is defined
a) Reciprocal of full scale. deflection current
b) Volt per ohm
c) Ohms per volt
d) It is degree of sensitiveness to impulse change

Which of the following instrument is undesirable for measurement of AC value?
a) Moving iron repulsion type
b) Moving iron attraction type
c) Dynamometer type
d) Permanent magnet moving coil type

Maximum current measured by the clip on ammeter is -
a) 700 Amp
b) 500 Amp
c) 800 Amp
d) 1000 Amp

For the measurement of voltage and current in the ratio frequency range, suitable instrument is-
a) Moving iron type
b) Moving coil type
c) Electro thermic type
d) Electrostatic type

The wattmeter which cannot be used on D.C. circuit is-
a) Thermal wattmeter
b) Electrostatic wattmeter
c) Induction wattmeter
d) Electro — dynamic wattmeter

In a megger when not in operation, the needle shows a resistance of-
a) Zero ohm
b) 100 ohm
c) 555 ohm
d) Infinity

The resistance of the shunt for an ammeter is usually of the order of-
a) 1000 ohm and above
b) 100 ohm and above
c) Less than 100 ohm
d) Less then 1 ohm

Instrument current transformer is used to operate -
a) Volt meter
b) Watt meter
c) Ohm meter
d) Ammeter

Vibrating reeds are employed in-
a) Frequency meter
b) Power factor meter
c) Synchroscope
d) Megger

Vibrating reed frequency meter operates on the principle of-
a) Phenomena of electrical resonance
b) Phenomena of mechanical resonance
c) Variation of impedance of an inductive coil circuit with the variation in supply frequency
d) None of these

A Weston frequency meter is a-
a) Dynamometer type instrument b) Moving coil instrument
c) Moving iron instrument
d) Induction instrument

Which wiring system is inside of wall?
a) P.V.C. wiring
b) Batten wiring
c) Concealed wiring
d) Pipe wiring

In house wiring all lighting switch are of capacity rating of -
a) 6 amp.
b) 16 amp.
c) 32 amp.
d) None of these

Green coloured cable indicates -
a) Phase line
b) Neutral line
c) OK line
d) Earthing connection

According to I.S.I. the maximum power load in a sub — circuit should not be more than-
a) 1000 W or two points
b) 2000 W or two points
c) 3000 W or four points
d) 500 W or one point

What is the maximum number of lighting points that can be connected in a circuit?
a) 10 b) 05 c) 08 d) 12

Light point is fixed from the ground level to height of-
a) 2.75 mtr.
b) 2.5 mtr.
c) 2.13 mtr.
d) 1.8 mtr.

Which type of wiring is done in workshop?
a) Conduit pipe wiring
b) Cleat wiring
c) Batten wiring
d) L.C.C. wiring

Earth connection can be available from-
a) Pole/Ground
b) Meter
c) Fuse
d) Switch Board

Red colour wire is used as -
a) Earth wire
b) Phase wire
c) Neutral wire
d) Insulated wire

Cleat wiring is used for-
a) Temporary lighting at dry places
b) Permanent lighting at dry places
c) Both used (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Refrigerator, Air conditioner, Microwave oven, washing machine :need socket/plug with the minimum capacity of
a) 16 amp.
b) 2.5 amp.
c) 6 amp.
d) 10 amp.

Which material is used for wiring continuous busbar?
a) Aluminum
b) Copper
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

For what voltage level are the screwed conduit circuit used-
a) Less than 250 volt
b) For voltage between 250 volt- 600 volt
c) For voltage above 600 volt
d) None of these

Which among these is a method of wiring?
a) Joint box
b) Tee system
c) Loop in system
d) All of these

An electric bulb can work from-
a) D.C. supply only
b) A.C. supply only
c) Battery Supply only
d) Al of these

Lux is a unit of illumination-
a) It is equal to foot candle
b) It is less than foot candle
c) It is more than foot candle
d) It has no relation with foot candle

Light-
a) Is a form of electricity energy b) Is a form of heat energy
c) Consist of electromagnetic waves
d) Consist of shooting particles

Colour of light depends upon-
a) Wave length
b) Frequency of the wave
c) Speed of the light
d) (a) and (b) above

One foot candle is equal to-
a) 1/10 lux
b) 10 lux
c) 100 lux  
d) 1000 lux


In a sodium vapour lamp, the discharge is first started in the-
a) Neon gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Argon gas
d) Krypton gas

Which lamp cannot sustain much voltage fluctuation?
a) Incandescent lamp
b) Fluorescent lamp
c) Mercury vapour lamp
d) Sodium vapour lamp

Filament lamp at starting will take current-
a) Equal to its full running current
b) Less than its full running current
c) More than its full running current
d) None of these

Illumination of one lumen per sq. meter is called-
a) Ft. candle
b) Candela
c) Lux
d) Lumen, meter

The following discharge lamp needs separate choke:
a) Fluorescent lamp
b) Sodium vapour lamp
c) Mercury vapour lamp
d) All of these lamps

Fluorescent tube is coated from inside with white powder. This is done to-
a) Change the colour of light emitted to white
b) Improve che appearance
c) Increase the light radiations due to secondry emission
d) Improve its life


Which part is the "brain" of the computer?
a) Monitor
b) CPU
c) RAM
d) ROM

The permanent memory built into your computer is called -
a) RAM
b) CPU
c) ROM
d) CD - ROM

Which of the following is not an input device?
a) Monitor
b) Keyboard
c) Joystick
d) Microphone

Which of the following is not an output device?
a) Monitor
b) Printer
c) Speaker
d) Keyboard

Which device allows your computer to talk to other computer over a telephone line as well as access the internet?
a) RAM
b) CD-ROM drive
c) Modem
d) Hard drive

Which of the following is an operating system you would be using on the computer?
a) Internet Explorer
b) Netscape
c) Microsoft word
d) Microsoft windows

Which of these is not a computer manufacturer?
a) IBM
b) Applé
c) Microsoft
d) Sun


Jan18 WELDER THEORY SEMESTER -II

Jan18 WELDER THEORY
 SEMESTER -II

Unlike TIG welding, MIG welding (a) Requires no flux
(b) Requires no post-weld cleansing
(c) Uses consumable electrodes
(d) Provides complete protection from atmospheric contamination

In Gas Metal Arc welding, the electrode extended from the end of the contact tip to the arc is known as -
(a) Electrode length
(b) Electrode extension
(c) Electrode retention
(d) Electrode projection

Argon and helium are the two commonly used inert gases. Which one is preferred for
h.'flG welding of copper?
(a) Helium
(b) Argon
(c) No preference
(d) Mixture of helium and argon

All commercially available electrodes contain deoxidizing metals. Which of the following is deoxidizing metal?
(a) Silicon
(b) Manganese
(c) Titanium
(d) All of these

MIG welding process is becoming increasingly popular in welding industry because of
(a) Its easy operaüon
(b) Its high metal deposition rate
(c) Its low initial cost
(d) Both its easy operation and its high metal deposition rate

Projection welding can be regarded as a mass production form of welding.
(a) Upset
(b) Spot
(c) Seam
(d) Butt

Which of the following is NOT true about globular metal transfer mode in Gas Metal Arc welding?
(a) It uses inexpensive C02
(b) It can weld at high speed
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It gives less spatter

Metals like columbium can be easily welded by welding process.
(a) TIG
(b) MIG
(c) Flash
(d) Electron beam

Which of the following welding processes is used for welding of sheet metals in  automobile and aircraft industries?
(a) Shielded metal arc welding
(b) Gas tungsten arc welding
(c) Thermit welding
(d) Resistance welding

Which of the following is an example of fusion welding?
(a) Arc welding
(b) Forge welding
(c) Resistance welding
(d) Thermit welding with pressure

What is the form of flux used in submerged arc welding?
(a) Paste
(b) Powder
(c) Granulated
(d) Coil

The type of filler metal normally used in submerged arc welding is -
(a) Cored wire
(b) Bare wire
(c) Lightly coated wire
(d) Heavily coated wire

Which two items in MIG welding would need to be changed if the size of mild steel wire  electrode is changed from 0.9 mm to 1.2 mm?
(a) Contact tip and shroud
(b) Contact tip and drive rollers
(c) Gas diffuser and drive rollers
(d) Gas bottle and earth clamp

MAG process differs from NflG in that it uses  instead of inert gases.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen    
(c) C02
(d) All of these

Electroslag welding is -
(a) An arc welding process
(b) A gas welding process
(c) A non-arc welding process
(d) A resistance welding process

Electroslag welding is done in -
(a) Flat position
(b) Overhead position
(c) Vertical position
(d) Any position

In atomic hydrogen welding a single phase AC arc is maintained between two  electrodes.
(a) Carbon steel
(b) Copper
(c) Tungsten
(d) Aluminium

Which statement applies to thermit welding?
(a) It needs no external source of current
(b) It is suitable for joining parts having heavy cross — section
(c) The slag formed in this process is A1203
(d) All of these

Steel is an alloy of -
(a) Chromium and iron
(b) Sulphur and phosphorous

(c) Iron and carbon
(d) Manganese and riickel

Post — heating of weld is applied -
(a) Immediately after welding
(b) Before welding  
(c) During welding
(d) None of these

What does the tem 'pass' refer to as regards welded joint?
 (a) Depression in base metal (c) Shape of weld bead
(b) Each layer of weld bead deposited (d) Distance from electrode to metal

Metal particles expelled during welding are called -
(a) Porosity
(b) Overlap
(c) Spatter
(d) Undercut

The process of heating to a certain temperature and then quenching in order to make the
metal tough is the heat treatment process called -
(a) Hardening
(b) Annealing
(c) Tempering
(d) Normalizing

For submerged arc welding, what is the effect of raising arc voltage but keeping all other parameters the same?
(a) Weld bead width will increase
(b) Depth of penetration will increase
(c) Weld bead width will decrease
(d) Depth of penetration will decrease

What steps can be taken to prevent welding hazards in workshop?
(a) Idenüfy risks
(b) Evaluate hazards
(c) Establish control methods
(d) All of these

Thermit welding uses what to work?
(a) Oxygen and acetylene combined to form a flame
(b) Resistance of two metals held under pressure
(c) Enveloping tungsten using hydrogen gas
(d) An exothermic reaction between aluminium powder and metal oxide

Rotation of one of the workpieces to be joined is required in -
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Electroslag welding
(c) Friction welding
(d) TIG welding

Nickel based hardfacing alloys -
(a) Increase wear resistance
(b) Are highly resistant to corrosion
(c) Increase hardenability
(d) Cannot be deposited on carbon and heat steels

Metal with highest resistivity and lowest conductivity is -
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Nickel
(d) Titanium

The purpose of backing material at the root of a weld is -
(a) To support molten weld metal (c) To prevent lack of fusion
(b) A heat sink (d) All of these

In welding, the area of base metal melted as determined on a cross-section of the weld is the -

(a) Heat — affected zone (c) Dead zone
(b) Fusion zone (d) Twilight zone
Contd.. ..5/

18/A/C/SO/2/E
32. In TIG welding the electrode manipulated by the welder is -
(a) Made of tungsten (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Not consumed (d) None of these
33. When visually inspecting the root bead of a single V butt weld it should be checked for(a) Lack of root penetration (c) Tungsten inclusion
(b) HAZ hardness (d) Slag
34. A burn — through in a welded joint may occur if
(a) Current is too low (c) Root gap is too large
(b) Root face is too large (d) Arc voltage is too high
35. If a welding inspector detects a type of imperfection not allowed by the application standard, he should -
(a) Ask for explanation
(b) Reject the wéld

(c) Prepare a concession request
(d) Reject the weld only if he considers it to be harmful
36. If the unit of power is expressed in watt, which of the following is a correct relationship?
(a) Power (watt) = Ampere x Volt (c) Power (watt) = Volt x Ohm
(b) Power (watt) = Ampere x Ohm (d) Power (watt) = Ampere x Volt x Ohm
37. If 100 mm thick plates are to be welded, which of the following processes should be selected so as to get high production rate with square edge preparation?
(a) Electroslag welding (c) TIG welding
(b) C02 welding (d) Friction welding
38. In which of the following non-destructive methods, there is no need for supply of electricity?
 (a) X — ray test (c) Dye penetrant test
(b) Ultrasonic test (d) Hydraulic pressure test
...6/
18/NC/S-2/2/E -6-
39. The limitation of electron beam welding is    (a) High equipment cost
(b) The size of work chamber is a constraint
(c) Rapid solidification rate can cause cracking in some materials  (d) All of these
40. Protective equipment not suitable for eye protection from welding radiation includes -
(a) Welding helmet with filter plates (c) Safety goggles with filter plates
(b) Clear safety goggles (d) Protective screens
41. Which of the following is not considered a type of metal transfer for GMAW?
 (a) Short circuiting (c) Globular
(b) Spray (d) Droplet
42. The main types of welding joints are -
 (a) Flat, square, angled, upright and vertical
(b) Horizontal, single-V, double-V, T-joint and overhead

  (c) Butt, lap, corner, T-joint and edge joint
 (d) Butt, single bevel, double bevel, plasma and edge joint
43. The main positions for welding pipes are -
  (a) IG, 2G, 3G, 4G (c) IF, 2F, 5G, 6G  (d) IG, 2G, 5G, 6G
44.The height of the weld face above the base metal in a groove weld is called as (a) Crown (c) Buildup (b) Weld reinforcement (d) Face
45. A triangular — shaped weld symbol represents what type of weld?
(a) Fillet weld (c) Flare groove
(b) Bevel groove (d) V — groove
46. Which of the following should be removed in order to obtain a good dye penetrant test?
 (a) Varnish (c) Plating
(b) Oxides (d) All of these
 Contd....7/-
  18/NC/S-2/2/E
47. Which type of test uses a weighted pendulum which strikes a notched test specimen?
(a) Brinnel test (c) Tensile test
(b) Fatigue test (d) Charpy impact test
48. In electron beam welding to eliminate the defect porosity, which has to be adjusted?
(a) Spot size (c) Weld penetration
(b) Deflection (d) Focal position / focus current
49. Which one of the following tests makes use of sound waves?
(a) Radiographic test (c) Dye penetrant test
(b) Ultrasonic test (d) Magnetic particle test
50. The process of hammering the weld metal immediately after it is deposited is called    (a) Tinning (c) Pressing
(b) Peening (d) Dressing

Jan18 WIREMAN THEORY SENIESTER-II

Jan18 
WIREMAN THEORY
SENIESTER-II


The advantage of moving coil permanent magnet type instrument is-
a) Law power consumption
b) No hysteresis loss
c) Efficiency eddy current damping
d) All of these

The internal resistance of an ammeter is-
a) Zero
b) Very low
c) Very high
d) Infinite

The moving iron type voltmeter and ammeter are suitable to measure the potential difference and current in-
a) A.C. circuit only
b) D.C. circuit only
c) Both a.c. and d.c. circuits
d) None of these

Ammeter falls under the category of-
a) Indicating instruments
b) Recording instrument
c) Integrating instruments
d) Standard instrument

In moving iron type instrument because of hysteresis in the iron parts of the moving   system, the readings are-
a) Higher on descending value but lower on ascending values
b) Higher on ascending values but lower on descending values
c) Higher on both ascending as well as descending values
d) Lower on both ascending as well as descending values

Ohm meter is-
a) A meter to record ohm
b) Used to measure resistance
c) Combination of ohm and meter d) An indicating instrument

In a moving iron type ammeter the coil has-
a) Large number of turns of thick wire
b) Large number of turns of thin wire
c) Few turns of thin wire
d) Few turns of thick wire

Volt meter resistivity is defined
a) Reciprocal of full scale. deflection current
b) Volt per ohm
c) Ohms per volt
d) It is degree of sensitiveness to impulse change

Which of the following instrument is undesirable for measurement of AC value?
a) Moving iron repulsion type
b) Moving iron attraction type
c) Dynamometer type
d) Permanent magnet moving coil type

Maximum current measured by the clip on ammeter is -
a) 700 Amp
b) 500 Amp
c) 800 Amp
d) 1000 Amp

For the measurement of voltage and current in the ratio frequency range, suitable instrument is-
a) Moving iron type
b) Moving coil type
c) Electro thermic type
d) Electrostatic type

The wattmeter which cannot be used on D.C. circuit is-
a) Thermal wattmeter
b) Electrostatic wattmeter
c) Induction wattmeter
d) Electro — dynamic wattmeter

In a megger when not in operation, the needle shows a resistance of-
a) Zero ohm
b) 100 ohm
c) 555 ohm
d) Infinity

The resistance of the shunt for an ammeter is usually of the order of-
a) 1000 ohm and above
b) 100 ohm and above
c) Less than 100 ohm
d) Less then 1 ohm

Instrument current transformer is used to operate -
a) Volt meter
b) Watt meter
c) Ohm meter
d) Ammeter

Vibrating reeds are employed in-
a) Frequency meter
b) Power factor meter
c) Synchroscope
d) Megger

Vibrating reed frequency meter operates on the principle of-
a) Phenomena of electrical resonance
b) Phenomena of mechanical resonance
c) Variation of impedance of an inductive coil circuit with the variation in supply frequency
d) None of these

A Weston frequency meter is a-
a) Dynamometer type instrument b) Moving coil instrument
c) Moving iron instrument
d) Induction instrument

Which wiring system is inside of wall?
a) P.V.C. wiring
b) Batten wiring
c) Concealed wiring
d) Pipe wiring


In house wiring all lighting switch are of capacity rating of -
a) 6 amp.
b) 16 amp.
c) 32 amp.
d) None of these

Green coloured cable indicates -
a) Phase line
b) Neutral line
c) OK line
d) Earthing connection

According to I.S.I. the maximum power load in a sub — circuit should not be more than-
a) 1000 W or two points
b) 2000 W or two points
c) 3000 W or four points
d) 500 W or one point

What is the maximum number of lighting points that can be connected in a circuit?
a) 10 b) 05 c) 08 d) 12

Light point is fixed from the ground level to height of-
a) 2.75 mtr.
b) 2.5 mtr.
c) 2.13 mtr.
d) 1.8 mtr.


Which type of wiring is done in workshop?
a) Conduit pipe wiring
b) Cleat wiring
c) Batten wiring
d) L.C.C. wiring

Earth connection can be available from-
a) Pole/Ground
b) Meter
c) Fuse
d) Switch Board

Red colour wire is used as -
a) Earth wire
b) Phase wire
c) Neutral wire
d) Insulated wire

Cleat wiring is used for-
a) Temporary lighting at dry places
b) Permanent lighting at dry places
c) Both used (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Refrigerator, Air conditioner, Microwave oven, washing machine :need socket/plug with the minimum capacity of
a) 16 amp.
b) 2.5 amp.
c) 6 amp.
d) 10 amp.

Which material is used for wiring continuous busbar?
a) Aluminum
b) Copper
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

For what voltage level are the screwed conduit circuit used-
a) Less than 250 volt
b) For voltage between 250 volt- 600 volt
c) For voltage above 600 volt
d) None of these


Which among these is a method of wiring?
a) Joint box
b) Tee system
c) Loop in system
d) All of these

An electric bulb can work from-
a) D.C. supply only
b) A.C. supply only
c) Battery Supply only
d) Al of these

Lux is a unit of illumination-
a) It is equal to foot candle
b) It is less than foot candle
c) It is more than foot candle
d) It has no relation with foot candle

Light-
a) Is a form of electricity energy b) Is a form of heat energy
c) Consist of electromagnetic waves
d) Consist of shooting particles

Colour of light depends upon-
a) Wave length
b) Frequency of the wave
c) Speed of the light
d) (a) and (b) above

One foot candle is equal to-
a) 1/10 lux
b) 10 lux
c) 100 lux  
d) 1000 lux


In a sodium vapour lamp, the discharge is first started in the-
a) Neon gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Argon gas
d) Krypton gas

Which lamp cannot sustain much voltage fluctuation?
a) Incandescent lamp
b) Fluorescent lamp
c) Mercury vapour lamp
d) Sodium vapour lamp

Filament lamp at starting will take current-
a) Equal to its full running current
b) Less than its full running current
c) More than its full running current
d) None of these

Illumination of one lumen per sq. meter is called-
a) Ft. candle
b) Candela
c) Lux
d) Lumen, meter

The following discharge lamp needs separate choke:
a) Fluorescent lamp
b) Sodium vapour lamp
c) Mercury vapour lamp
d) All of these lamps

Fluorescent tube is coated from inside with white powder. This is done to-
a) Change the colour of light emitted to white
b) Improve che appearance
c) Increase the light radiations due to secondry emission
d) Improve its life

Which part is the "brain" of the computer?
a) Monitor
b) CPU
c) RAM
d) ROM

The permanent memory built into your computer is called -
a) RAM
b) CPU
c) ROM
d) CD - ROM

Which of the following is not an input device?
a) Monitor
b) Keyboard
c) Joystick
d) Microphone

Which of the following is not an output device?
a) Monitor
b) Printer
c) Speaker
d) Keyboard

Which device allows your computer to talk to other computer over a telephone line as well as access the internet?
a) RAM
b) CD-ROM drive
c) Modem
d) Hard drive

Which of the following is an operating system you would be using on the computer?
a) Internet Explorer
b) Netscape
c) Microsoft word
d) Microsoft windows

Which of these is not a computer manufacturer?
a) IBM
b) Applé
c) Microsoft
d) Sun


Jan18 MECHANIC MOTOR VEHICLE THEORY SENESTER III

Jan18 MECHANIC MOTOR VEHICLE THEORY SENESTER III

A mechanism which enables to the rotary motion of one shaft to another shaft at the same axis is called —
a) Crank
b) Differential
c) Clutch
d) Fly wheel

The main advantage of a good clutch is —
a) Good power transmission
b) Rapid engagement
c) Rapid disengagement
d) Large size

The cushioning springs in clutch plate are used to reduce
a) Vibrations
b) Jerks
c) Vehicle speed
d) NC ne of these

The clutch disc is positioned between the flywheel and the
a) Engine
b) Crankshaft
c) Pressure plate
d) Differential

The diaphragm clutch is generally used in
a) Modem cars
b) Dual mass flywheel
c) Tractors
d) Automatic transmission

"Clutch slippage" when the clutch is engaged is particJlarly noticeable —
a) At low speed
b) At Idling
c) During acceleration
d) While starting the engine

Most ofthe vehicles having automatic transmission, connect the engine to the gearbox through
a) Multi-plate clutch
b) Dog clutch
c) Magnetic clutch
d) Fluid clutch (fluid coupling or torque converter)

The synchronizer hub is attached with main shaft through
a) Synchronizer key
b) Shifl fork
c) Synchronizer ring
d) Splines inside the hub
If the tractive effort is the highest -(ör a given velocity, then vehicle must be in —
a) Top gear
b) Third gear
c) Second gear
d) First gear

The component in the torque converter which allows multiplication of the torque is -
a) Pump
b) Stator
c) Turbine
d) Impeller

The main disadvantage of sliding mesh transmission is —
a) High noise level
b) Low mechanical efficiency
c) High skilled required by the driver
d) All of these

The purpose of synchromesh mechanism is to
a) Run the driving and driven gear shafts at different speed
b) Synchronize the speed of driving and driven gear shafts
c) Increase the torque
d) Decrease the torque

In simple planetary gear, the member which increases the torque is —
a) Ring — gear
b) Sun-gear
c) Planet carrier
d) None of these

In a torque converter, the maximum torque multiplication occurs at --
a) Stop
b) Low speed
c) Medium speed
d) High speed

The functions of Electronically controlled automatic transmissions is to
a) Downshift automatically when going downhill to control speed
b) Up shift automatically when braking on a slippery surface
c) Prevent the up shift when taking a turn
d) All ofthe above

In Hydraulic fluid controlled automatic transmission, the shifting of gears is based on
a) Govemor and throttle pressure b) Only governor pressure
c) Only throttle pressure
d) None of these

The probable cause for gear jumps out of mesh is.
a) Weak spring or fork rod
b) Flywheel housing and gearbox out of alignment
c) Worn out teeth of sleeve or gears
d) Any of the above

Interlocking mechanism is provided in the shift mechanism of manual transmission is to-
a) Prevent shifting of two gears simultaneously
b) Prevent shifting of reverse gear
c) Facilitate the gear selection
d) All of the above

In a simple gear train if number of idle gear is even then the direction of motion of driven gear will be-
a) Same as driving gear
b) Opposite to the driving gear
c) Depending on number of teeth on the driving gear
d) Depending on number of teeth on the driven gear

The smaller gears inside the differential casing are-
a) Pinion gears
b) Sun gears
c) Ring gears
d) None of these

The type of rear axle used in trucks is-
a) Semi floating b) Fully floating
c) Three quarter floating
d) None of these

The limited slip differential (LSD) mechanism comes in action when-
a) Driving on bumpy roads
b) One tyre encounters a slippery section of road
c) When cornering at high speed
d) All of the above

In most of the modern cars which type of drive is employed on the wheels-
a) Front 2 — wheel drive
b) Rear 2 — wheel drive
c) 4 — wheel drive
d) All wheel drive

Most popular manual steering gear for cars is-
a) Worm and wheel type
b) Worm and nut type
c) Rack and Pinion type
d) Re — circulating ball type

One purpose of re-circulating ball type steering gear is to reduce-
a) Toe out during tum
b) Operating friction
c) Operating cost
d) None of these

The power steering pump is-
a) Belt driven by camshaft
b) Chain driven by crank shaft
c) Chain driven by cam shaft
d) Belt driven by crank shaft

The purpose of caster is to-
a) Ensure steering stability
b) Reduce the rolling resistance which the tyres may encounter during a tum
c) Enables the vehicle to be towed easily
d) Cancel the tendency of toe-out

The elecm)nic power steering (EPS) system control unit controls the assist motor based on signals of-
a) Road resistance, steering turning speed and vehicle speed
b) Road resistance, steering turning direction and engine speed
c) Road resistance, steering turning direction and vehicle speed
d) Road resistance, steering turning speed and engine speed

The effect of excessive camber is-
a) High steering alignment torque   b) Hard steering
c) Too much traction d) Un even tyre wear

The function which allows the driver to raise or lower the steering wheel is-
a) Power steering system
b) Tilt steering system
c) Air bag system
d) Rack and pinion type steering system

Which of the following can be adjusted by modifring the tie — rod attachment length?
a) Camber
b) Caster
c) Toe-in or Toe-out
d) Steering gear ratio

The name of component that connects the rack to the steering knuckles is-
a) Tie rod
b) Sector arm
c) Pivot
d) Spline

The vehicle ride will be comfortable if-
a) Un-sprung weight is kept minimum
b) Un-sprung weight is kept maximum
c) Sprung weight is kept minimum
d) Vehicle weight is kept minimum

The spring commonly used in modern cars is-
a) Semi elliptical leaf spring
b) Coil spring
c) Quarter elliptical leaf spring
d) Elliptical leaf spring

The part which permits variation in the distance between the spring eyes of a leaf spring   as the spring flexes, is called-
a) U — bolt b) Shackle

c) Leaf d) Bush

In which type of suspension the compressed air is necessary-
a) Rigid axle suspension
b) Air suspension
c) Mc-Persion strut suspension
d) Double wishbone suspension

A damper is also known as-
a) Torsion bar
b) Spring
c) Stabilizer
d) Shock absorber

An under -- inflated tyre wear out more-
a) Near centre
b) Near edge
c) In cross section
d) In lateral direction

The part ofthe tyre which contacts the road surface is called-
a) Carcass
b) Bead
c) Tread
d) Ply

The term "ply rating" with reference to a tyre refers to the-
a) Actual number of plies
b) Recommended inflation pressure
c) Aspect ratio
d) Rated strength

The efficiency of mechanical brakes is usually-
a) 30-40%
b) 40-50%
c) 50-60 %
d) 60-70%

'Brake Fade' is-
a) Loss of pedal free play
b) Loss of hydraulic fluid
c) Loss of co-efficient of friction
d) Change of colour of the lining due to oil soaked by lining


The brake bleeding process removes from the hydraulic brake system.
a) Air
b) Vacuum
c) Excess fluid
d) Excess pressure

The role of Antilock Brake System (ABS) is that-
a) It reduces the vehicle's stopping distances
b) It minimizes brake fade
c) It maintains directional control during braking by preventing the wheels from locking
d) It prevents nose during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels

When the hydraulic brake pedal is pressed by the driver and feels 'spongy' it indicates that-
a) Brake shoe clearance is excessive
b) System contains air
c) System is in good condition
d) Brake fluid require change

Which of the following problem is caused due to wheel imbalance?
a) Steering wheel vibration
b) Poor acceleration
c) Reduced fuel efficiency
d) Road noise

The purpose oftyre rotation on automobile is to-
a) Avoid ply separation
b) Equalize wear
c) Get better ride
d) None of these

If driving incense for a privately driven vehicle is expired then you can get your license renewed for a maximum period of-
a) 3 years from the date of expiry b) 4 year from the date of expiry
c) 5 years from the date of expiry d) 6 years from the date of expiry

For a new petrol run private vehicle, the initial fitness certificate is valid for-
a) 20 years
b) 15 years
c) 10 years
d) 05 years

The violation of which road signs is a legal offence?
a) Mandatory sign
b) Cautionary signs
c) Informatory signs
d) Any of these

QUESTION & ANSWERS LINK

QUESTION & ANSWERS LINK ALL TRADE QUESTION ANSWERS ELECTRICIAN FITTER TURNER MACHINIST MMV DIESEL WIREMAN CALCULATION DRA...